This is the Multiple Choice Questions in Professional Education part 1 as one coverage of Licensure Examinations for Teachers (LET). The exam is divided into two classifications. First is the elementary level exam which covers topics from General Education (GenEd) 40% and Professional Education (ProfEd) 60%. Secondly is the secondary level which covers GenEd 20%, ProfEd 40% and area of specialization 40%. I assume you are looking for a reviewer that will help you achieve your goal to become a professional License teacher very soon. Yes, you are in the right place to make your dream come true. Make sure to familiarize each and every questions to increase the chance of passing the Licensure Examinations for Teachers (LET).
PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION (Elementary and Secondary) Coverage
- Teaching Profession, Social Dimensions of Education
- Principles of Teaching, Educational Technology, Curriculum Development
- Facilitating Learning, Child and Adolescent Development
- Assessment of Student Learning, Developmental Reading
- Field Study, Practice Teaching
Practice Exam Test Questions
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1. Which of the following is the CORRECT name for the compound MnF3?
A. Manganese flouride (III)
B. Manganese (I) flouride (III)
C. Manganese (III) flouride
D. Manganese (III) flouride (III)
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Option C
2. Which of the following is a heterotrophe?
A. Algae
B. Fern
C. Grasshopper
D. Moss
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Option C
3. Polysaccharides, triglycerides, polypeptides and nucleic acids are classified as _______.
A. Carbohydrates
B. Acids and bases
C. Phopholipids
D. Macromolecular
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Option D
4. Which of the following is a measure of pressure, defines as one newton per square meter?
A. Pascal
B. Atomic Units
C. Milliliter
D. Poise
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Option A
5. A metric carat ia a unit of mass for measuring gemstones. It is equivalent to ________.
A. 1, 000 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 2 kg
D. 100 mg
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Option B
6. Kingdom plante includes which organisms?
A. Prokaryotes
B. Fungi
C. Magnoliidae
D. Protozoa
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Option C
7. Science provides knowledge through disciplined observation. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of scientific assertion?
A. Logic and validity
B. Empirical support
C. Conformity with actual observation
D. Hearsay
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Option D
8. Damage to DNA that is not repaired and then replicated can result in genetic disorders.
A. Mutation
B. Pathology
C. Embryology
D. Speciation
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Option A
9. What organism would most likely be in an arctic environment?
A. Crocodile
B. Walrus
C. Turtle
D. Maya Bird
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Option B
10. How are bats able to navigate in the dark without bumping into anything?
A. They emit sound waves whose returning vibrations can detect the presence of objects
B. They are able to fluoresce in the dark
C. They have supersonic eyesight
D. They can disappear
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Option A
11. This demonstrated the feeding connections between all life forms.
A. Nutrition cycles
B. Biochemical pathways
C. Fossil cycle
D. Food web
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Option D
12. One instance of taking away the life of another person without due process is ____________.
A. Euthanasia
B. Salvaging
C. Capital punishment
D. Suicide
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Option B
13. A species of fish lived in a lake. When a dam was constructed in the area a group of fish was separated and populated a new pond. They then developed differing characteristics and became a distinct species. Which of the following concepts explain this speciation?
A. Geographical isolation
B. Chronotropic isolation
C. Episodic isolation
D. Behavioral isolation
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Option A
14. The protein shell of a virus is called __________.
A. Capsid
B. Lambda bacteriophage
C. Virions
D. Capsomeres
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Option A
15. Air, flood and water are essential elements in human existence. Carried by the wind, polluted air called ___________falls to earth poisoning fish and destroying vegetation.
A. La Nina
B. El Nino
C. Greenhouse rain
D. Acid rain
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Option D
16. In the pacific area, a storm is called _________.
A. Hurricane
B. El Nino
C. Typhoon
D. La Nina
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Option C
17. When the North Pole is tilted towards the sun, it is summer and when the sun shines all the time both day and night, what is this called?
A. Twilight sun
B. Northern Light
C. Summer light
D. Midnight Sun
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Option D
18. The Kyoto protocol, which requires countries to reduce greenhouse emission, is a practice that advocates _________.
A. Environmental protection
B. Sustainable potential
C. Ecological destruction
D. Forest Demolition
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Option A
19. Ecosystem is the relationship between the physical and biological environments in a certain plain. Among desert ecosystems, the world’s largest ecosystem is ________.
A. Sahara
B. Sonoran
C. Tian shan
D. Namib
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Option A
20. The Philippines lies in the _________, an area where many volcanoes are active.
A. Gas
B. Sun
C. Sea
D. Mineral
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Option A
21. Which is an example of a non-pathogenic microorganism?
A. Palsmodium falciparum
B. Influenza sp.
C. Probiotics such as bifidobacteria
D. Yersinia pestis
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Option C
22. Monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides are types of
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Nucleotides
D. Carbohydrates
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Option D
23. Air like food and water is an essentail element in human existence. Carried by the wind, polluted air called ______ falls to earth poisoning fish and destroying vegetation.
A. El Niño
B. Greenhouse rain
C. La Niña
D. Acid rain
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Option D
24. What are the components of a fungal cell wall?
A. Chitin, proteins and sugar
B. Nucleic acids, proteins and sugars
C. Lipids, proteins and sugars
D. Cellular and proteins
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Option A
25. What is the molecule that allows plants to capture energy from sunlight?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Chlorophyll
C. ATP
D. Oxygen
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Option B
26. What percent of 75 is 15?
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 38%
D. 40%
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Option A
27. How long will it take A and B together, to finish a job which can be done by A alone in 6 days and be alone in 3 days?
A. 212 days
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 3 ½ days
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Option B
28. Guzman Company manufactures beds. In its catalogue, a double bed is priced at P5,000.00 less a discount to the trade of 20%. What will Rosan Departments Store have to pay for the bed?
A. P4,000.00
B. P4,500. 00
C. P4, 000. 00
D. P4,980. 00
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Option A
29. A receipt calls for 2 eggs for every cup of flour. If a head chef uses 28 cups of flour, how many eggs will he need?
A. 56 eggs
B. 14 eggs
C. 65 eggs
D. 55 eggs
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Option A
30. What is the total amount after adding interest of 8% on P10,000.00 for 3 years?
A. P12,400.00
B. P11, 000. 00
C. P13,400. 00
D. P15, 000. 00
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Option A
31. The fraction halfway between 3/7 and 4/7 is ________________.
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/8
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Option A
32. The slope of a line described by the equation 3x = (y + 4) 2 is __________.
A. 6
B. 3 IF / 2 NOT x2 (3/2)
C. 4
D. 8
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Option B
33. It can be used to show the progress in academic grades over four quarters.
A. Circle graph
B. Line graph
C. Pie graph
D. Bar graph
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Option B
34. It illustrates how a portion of the data relates with the whole.
A. Line graph
B. Pie graph
C. Bar Graph
D. Area diagram
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Option B
35. In an English test, eight students obtained the following scores: 10, 15, 12, 18, 16, 24, 12, 14. What is the median score?
A. 14
B. 14. 5
C. 15. 5
D. 15
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Option B
36. Find the least common multiple of 5, 2, 7
A. 35
B. 140
C. 15
D. 70
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Option D
37. A Toyota car travelling at a rate of 70 km per hour leaves the house 2 hours after a Kia car has left and overtakes it. In 5 hours at what rate was the Kia car travelling?
A. 30 kilometers per hour
B. 50 kilometers per hour
C. 20 kilometers per hour
D. 40 kilometers per hour
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Option D
38 If the average or arithmetic mean of x and -5 is 10, then what must be the value of x?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 20
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Option B
39. Which of the following gives the numerical value of the population?
A. Range
B. Statistics
C. Parameter
D. Variable
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Option C
40. The grades in Mathematics of students in section A are as follows: 80, 75, 60, 95, 100. What is the population variance of their group?
A. 230
B. 270
C. 264
D. choice
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Option D
41. Which among measures of central tendency is not influenced by outliers?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Weighted mean
D. Median
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Option A
42. If a die is rolled, what is the probability of getting a number described by 2?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/6
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Option D
43. If a student has an average of 76 % on his first two tests and has an average of 85 % on the next four tests, what is the final average on all six tests?
A. 82. 0 %
B. 82. 5 %
C. 80. 5 %
D. 81. 3 %
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Option A
44. In the example of 10 to the 5th power + 6x the exponent is __________.
A. y
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
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Option B
45. Simplify: 6 – [3 – (-4) + 11 + 8]
A. -26
B. 20
C. 26
D. -20
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Option D
46. Simplify: [(3x – 12) / (3x)] divided by (x – 4)
A. 3x
B. X – 4
C. x
D. 1/x
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Option D
47. In an English test, eight students obtained the following scores: 12, 10, 13, 11, 15, 20, 19, 17. What is the median score?
A. 14
B. 16.5
C. 17
D. 15.5
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Option A
48. Simplify (3x – 9) / (x2 – 9)
A. 3 / (x – 3)
B. 3 / (x + 3)
C. 3 / (x + 1)
D. 3 / (x – 1)
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Option B
49. What are the prime factors of 120?
A. 2 x 2 x 2 x 6 x 5
B. 2 x 4 x 3 x 5
C. 2 x 3 x 4 x 5
D. 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5
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Option D
50. What is the least common multiple of 12 and 60?
A. 340
B. 140
C. 120
D. 360
VIEW ANSWER
Option C